BUT WHY CALL IT “THE LORD’S SUPPER”?
A Sermonette by John Wheeler
INTRODUCTION:
• In the Church of God, we understand that the Eternal God instituted the Passover service for Israel “forever” and “throughout your generations” (cf. Exodus 12-13).
o Jesus intended that the Passover service continue after His death and resurrection.
o However, as the Son of God He had the authority to change the symbols of its observance from a roasted lamb, bitter herbs and unleavened bread to unleavened bread and wine.
o This is the main reason why we call the service He instituted the New Testament Passover (in contrast to the Old Testament Passover).
o Why then does 1 Corinthians 11:20 call that service “the Lord’s Supper”?
SPS:
• Today, I’ll discuss why this question matters to the religious world at large.
• Then, I’ll discuss why the question should matter to us – by explaining what Paul meant when he used that phrase.
BODY:
• The concept of a “New Testament Passover” had been rejected by “mainstream” Christianity by the mid-second century AD if not sooner.
o The early Catholic Church Fathers – that is, those writing before the First Council of Nicaea in 325 AD – never used the phrase “the Lord’s Supper”, so far as I can discover.
o They consistently called their corrupted version of the service “Eucharist”, from the Greek word for “communion” in 1 Corinthians 10:16.
o Now 1 Corinthians 10:16-17 does refer to the same service that Paul describes as “the Lord’s Supper” in 1 Corinthians 11:20, but it does not use “communion” as a proper name.
o The Protestant Reformers and later commentators, rejecting both Catholic tradition and terminology while substituting their own, used “the Lord’s Supper” to refer to their own corrupted versions of the New Testament Passover.
o While both “communion” as an action and “the Lord’s Supper” as a proper name are both biblically based, “mainstream” Christianity uses these words to disassociate the hearer from any connection with the despised “Jewish Passover” and its symbols.
o But the real heirs of the apostolic Church continued to call their service “Passover”, even as they used the symbols Jesus Christ ordained rather than those originally ordained for Israel.
• Thanks to “guilt by association”, some in God’s Church have questioned whether we should use even “the Lord’s Supper” as a description of the New Testament Passover.
o Some of our past explanations of this verse aimed to make it seem as if Paul referred to the Passover supper that Jesus ate with his disciples before changing its symbols, and that Paul was discouraging the Christians in Corinth from eating that Passover supper.
o But Paul was doing nothing of the kind, as we shall see.
• In the context of 1 Corinthians 10:16, there are two equally valid ways of saying “the Lord’s Supper”, depending on what emphasis Paul meant.
o Both translate into English as “of the Supper of the Lord”.
o But depending on the word order and the vocal accentuation, the sense can be either the Supper which the Lord merely possesses, or the Supper which is in the Lord’s honor.
o The Greek text shows that the second emphasis is meant.
o The verb “to be” is also given special emphasis in context, and is accompanied by the absolute negative particle.
o And so were Paul speaking in English, he would emphasize the words like this: “When you come together into the same (place), it is absolutely not to eat of the Supper of the Lord.”
• Albert Barnes shows that Paul meant something like this:
o “It cannot be that such practices as are allowed among you can be a part of the celebration of that supper, or consistent with it. Your greediness 1Co_11:21; your intemperance 1Co_11:21; your partaking of the food separately and not in common, cannot be a celebration of the Lord’s Supper. Whatever, therefore, you may profess to be engaged in, yet really and truly you are not celebrating the Lord’s Supper.”
• Paul therefore calls the service “the Supper of the Lord” as contrasted to a normal, “secular” supper, such as the Corinthians were actually eating.
o The contrast is not made with the Passover supper that the Jews still ate (which was equally ordained in honor of the Lord, the accusations of the early Church Fathers notwithstanding).
o That point was already understood, as the Lord Jesus had changed the symbols of that service for Christians.
• Albert Barnes goes on to say this:
o “[The Lord’s Supper is] that which the Lord Jesus instituted to commemorate his death. It is called ‘the Lord’s,’ because it is his appointment, and is in honor of him; it is called ‘supper’ (deipnon), because the word denotes the evening repast; it was instituted in the evening; and it is evidently most proper that it should be observed in the after part of the day. With most churches the time is improperly changed to the morning – a custom which has no sanction in the New Testament; and which is a departure from the very idea of a supper.”
• But Barnes insists on something which likewise has no sanction in the New Testament:
o “The apostle here particularly refers to their ‘assembling’ to observe the ordinance of the Lord’s Supper. At that early period it is probable that this was done on every Lord’s Day.”
o This of course is nonsense. Paul specifically upheld every one of the Ten Commandments in his writings, including the Sabbath, and kept the Sabbath himself – just as Jesus the Lord of the Sabbath Day had while on earth.
o And while Jesus had the right to change the symbols of the Passover supper, He never changed the command to observe either Passover Day or the service to be held on it.
o Rather, He set the example for us to follow, and Paul cites it later on in 1 Corinthians 11.
o The heirs of the true apostolic church have continued to keep that New Testament Passover service from the close of biblical times to the present day.
CONCLUSION:
• So why does all this matter to us?
o The proper name of the service remains “the Passover” – the Lord’s Passover.
o It is still in honor of Him, as the original Passover service was.
o But its other proper name is “the Lord’s Supper”, describing it as an evening meal neither given to satisfy hunger or thirst nor to encourage drunkenness, but to proclaim the Lord’s death until He comes.
o Jesus Himself likened the bread and the wine in that supper to His flesh and His blood – which means that they symbolize several different things at once.
o That is why we need to consider carefully and discern their symbolic meaning, which we can only do if we examine our lives and our motives first.
o If we treat those symbols like a common meal, we eat and drink judgment upon ourselves, for they represent the profound changes in body, soul and spirit that Jesus Christ demands of each and every one of His disciples.
[...] some weeks or months ago. :D So despite the Passover season being far behind us, I plan to give this sermonette on this coming [...]
Pingback by “But Why Call It ‘The Lord’s Supper’?” (LCG Scribe) | The Chronicles of Johanan Rakkav — August 25, 2011 @ 9:30 PM |
You’d do a thorough and eloquent job of writing Bible Study courses. This was concise and yet very understandable. I felt your passion in this commentary.
Good job
Yisraela
Comment by Trish — August 25, 2011 @ 9:38 PM |
Hello John;
I hate to rain on your parade, so let me just ask this question. Have you read very carefully what 1Cor.11:20 actually says? Paul is trying to make it clear to the Corinthian brethren they ar NOT eating the Lord’s supper–so it seems that you have built your whole sermonette around a false assumption.
Paul does NOT call the Passover the Lord’s supper in this verse, rather stating it is NOT the Lord’s supper.
I have read this in six translation and they all confirm this. What have I missed?
Jerry
Comment by Jerry — September 1, 2011 @ 12:17 AM |
You’ve missed what the CEV, ERV, ESV, GNB, GW, HNT, MKJV, Murdock, RSV, Webster, WNT and YNT all pick up on (some of them in plainer terms than others). In fact if you understand “how Paul said what he said” – as these translations and commentators such as Barnes bring out – then you understand that all but a very few translations right back to the beginning say the same thing. That’s what you’re missing: the “how”. The CEV is one of those that brings out the sense fully.
(1 Corinthians 11:20 CEV) When you meet together, you don’t really celebrate the Lord’s Supper.
Again for emphasis: “When you meet together, it is not to eat of the Supper of the Lord” – that is, the Supper that is in the Lord’s honor (as opposed to one that He merely possesses). You couldn’t possibly be eating that, and your conduct (next described) proves it. No, you are eating another kind of supper, one that doesn’t honor the Lord at all.
In the Greek the “not” negates “of the Lord”, not “of the Supper”. English can’t make that distinction easily unless one adds a word to bring out what the Greek word order and accentuation imply. Some few older translations overlook the accentuation and miss the mark accordingly.
Logically, then, what is in question is how and for whom one should eat the Supper – not whether one should eat the Supper. The whole section of this chapter is consistent with this.
Comment by rakkav — September 1, 2011 @ 3:47 AM |
Well sir, I have read your reply and it seems you are missing the point I made.
Sorry–but I don’t know how to make it any more clear.
I checked some of the translation that you have sited and they say exactly what I said they say–Paul was not calling the Passover the “lords supper”–evem Mr. Meredith brought this out several years ago when the Tkaches were saying very much the same thing you are–maybe you should change your approach or talk to him about this.(just a suggestion)
Have a good evening and up coming Sabbath.
Jerry
Comment by Jerry — September 1, 2011 @ 1:57 PM
I understand the pont you’re making perfectly, Jerry; the misunderstanding remains on the other side, not mine. I stand by my conclusions, which are what the Greek text and all but a very few, very old English versions demand (and the versions I have in other languages back that conclusion too, as do all the commentaries). And those conclusions are what I’ll recommend to Mr. Meredith and anyone else in the ministry and membership who asks.
The prejudice in the Church on this verse is long-standing but there are a lot of prejudices in the Church which are long-standing and they need to be removed one by one. As Mr. Armstrong said, it is ten times harder to unlearn error than it is to learn new truth and I’ve been asked to do my bit to help us unlearn error. And one way to unlearn error is to stop reading the Bible, or even an older English version such as the KJV, as if it were written in 20th century American English. The meaning of words changes over time, even in the same language.
Comment by rakkav — September 1, 2011 @ 5:19 PM
Jerry, I would suggest that you are not reading the Bible Hebraically.
“One of the greatest obstacles we face in trying to interpret the Bible is that we are inclined to think in our own cultural and linguistic categories. This is no surprise since our categories are often all that we have, but it is a problem because our own categories often do not suffice and sometimes mislead” (John H. Walton, Genesis, NIVAC, pp.67-68).
Paul’s argument is similar to what God revealed through Isaiah:
Isa 1:14 Your new moons and your appointed feasts my soul hateth: they are a trouble unto me; I am weary to bear them.
Jerry, using your argument, you would have to conclude that the people were keeping their own ‘appointed’ feasts, not the LORDS’. They were keeping God’s feasts in the letter but because of their ‘way of life’, as described in the following verse, they were not keeping it in the spirit (Cp. Matt 5:23-24).
Hos 6:6a For I desired mercy, and not sacrifice;
From this verse in Hosea, taken by itself, it could be concluded that God does not desire sacrifice; but God desires both mercy and sacrifice. This illustrates what has been termed, among others, the Hebrew principle of ‘relative negation’. Christopher Wright explains:
“In order to indicate the relative priority of one thing over another, you would affirm one and deny the other” (The Message of Ezekiel, BST, p.291).
So we need to be careful when we read the Bible – we need to think in the “cultural and linguistic categories” of the Bible writers and their immediate audience – reading the Bible Hebraically – for want of a better term.
The writer of Hebrews says that there has been a change in the priesthood. But what did he mean? He would have been familiar with Ezekiel 40-44. The sons of Zadok served in Solomon’s temple and we know, from Ezekiel, that they will also serve in the Millennial Temple – so there has been no change in the priesthood there.
Ezekiel also reveals that there will be a ‘public’ Passover sacrifice. Daniel Block explains the other changes:
“On the day of the Passover, the prince is to provide for himself and the people a bull for a purification offering (hatta’t). This shift parallels the change in the nature of the sacrificial victims. Whereas the function of the original Passover was apotropaic, to ward off Yahweh’s lethal actions, and subsequent celebrations provided annual reminders of the original event, in the Ezekielian ordinance the memorial purposes of the Passover are overshadowed by the purgative concern…
“Through the Passover celebration, the temple complex becomes sacred space and the Israelites become a holy people. In this newly constituted theocracy the role of the nasi is pivotal. As the patron and guardian of the cult, he bears the responsibility for the sanctification of the temple and the nation…” (The Book of Ezekiel Chapters 25-28, NICOT, pp.665-67).
Comment by John from Australia — September 3, 2011 @ 2:49 AM |
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